Learn English – Why is it “objections to moving”, not “objections to move”?

gerundsgrammarphrasal-verbsprepositionssyntactic-analysis

I got this sentence from the Economist:

There are two primary objections to moving to the chained CPI.

My question is, why have they used moving instead of move after objections to?

Best Answer

Because you need a noun to complete the phrasal verb objecting to XXX. That means you need a noun phrase there. Moving as a gerund is a noun. Move by itself is not one.

You seem to have been distracted into thinking that there is a to-infinitive involved here. There is not. That to is part of object to, not part of to move.